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Ontario security guard: 50 practice questions

Real test: 60 questions, 75 minutes, pass 38/60 (63%). Answer key on the last page. From canadianlicensetest.com · independent study aid, not an official test.

  1. 1. The study guide gives two goals for traffic control on private land. What are they?

    1. A. Collecting fees and issuing tickets
    2. B. Checking licences and insurance
    3. C. Traffic safety and helping vehicles move
    4. D. Finding stolen cars and towing them

  2. 2. After a tense 12-hour night shift alone, a guard notices he is irritable and quick to raise his voice with visitors. What does the syllabus emphasize?

    1. A. That irritability is part of being assertive with visitors
    2. B. That guards should avoid talking to visitors when tired
    3. C. That stress has no real effect on a guard's decisions
    4. D. Managing stress and composure, especially when alone or tired

  3. 3. Which test does the syllabus suggest at the end of Section 1?

    1. A. A written incident report task
    2. B. A PSISA and Code of Conduct quiz
    3. C. A mock arrest in the classroom
    4. D. A hands-on first aid skills test

  4. 4. How does the syllabus say guards usually watch over a site?

    1. A. Only from a vehicle
    2. B. In person or remotely
    3. C. Only by police officers
    4. D. Only during night shifts

  5. 5. A person enters a fenced construction site at night by cutting the lock. There are no signs. Which part of the TPA makes his entry prohibited without notice?

    1. A. Section 3(1)(b), for premises enclosed to keep people out
    2. B. Section 3(2), the implied permission to approach a door
    3. C. Section 7(2), yellow markings
    4. D. Section 11, motor vehicle liability

  6. 6. A police officer chasing a suspect asks you to help hold him. Under Criminal Code s.25(1)(c), what protects you if you help?

    1. A. Your security licence, which gives you the powers of police
    2. B. Aiding a peace officer on reasonable grounds, using only needed force
    3. C. The client's written permission for you to assist police
    4. D. Nothing; helping police is always illegal for any guard

  7. 7. A citizen's arrest should be a last resort. Which is usually the better first option when a guard sees an offence and there is no immediate danger?

    1. A. Observe, record details and call the police
    2. B. Chase the person off the property at full speed
    3. C. Confront the person with a group of shoppers
    4. D. Post a description on social media

  8. 8. On your first round you noted that a rear fire door was closed and locked. On your second round it is propped open with a wooden wedge. What is the best first step?

    1. A. Ignore it, since staff often prop that door open for smokers
    2. B. Remove the wedge and keep patrolling without noting anything
    3. C. Lock yourself in the guard booth and wait until morning
    4. D. Check the area safely, secure the door, then record and report

  9. 9. On a condo patrol, you find an older resident on the hallway floor who cannot get up. How should you report this first?

    1. A. Call for medical help now, then write it up
    2. B. Write a full report, then call for help
    3. C. Email your supervisor and wait for a reply
    4. D. Leave a note under the resident's door

  10. 10. Which reference materials may a candidate bring into the Ontario security guard licensing test?

    1. A. The study guide only
    2. B. Personal notes on one page
    3. C. A printed copy of the PSISA
    4. D. None — no aids are permitted

  11. 11. According to the study guide, what is one drawback of relying on foot patrol?

    1. A. It makes the guard less visible to the public
    2. B. It prevents the guard from using the sense of smell
    3. C. It is difficult to supervise and covers a limited area
    4. D. It requires a driver's licence

  12. 12. A caller makes a bomb threat and hangs up. Your site uses a bomb threat checklist. When should you fill it in?

    1. A. Right away, while the details are fresh
    2. B. At the end of your shift
    3. C. Only if a device is found
    4. D. Only if police ask for it next week

  13. 13. Which principle must a provider's accessibility customer service policies follow under O. Reg. 191/11?

    1. A. Services for persons with disabilities are always kept separate
    2. B. Persons with disabilities are served last to avoid delays
    3. C. Services may be refused if they take extra time
    4. D. Services respect the dignity and independence of persons with disabilities

  14. 14. Dispatch radios: '10-25 the property manager in the lobby.' According to the study guide's APCO list, what are you being told?

    1. A. Arrived at scene
    2. B. Meet complainant
    3. C. Pick up subject
    4. D. Report to ________

  15. 15. Under Criminal Code s.348, what is the maximum sentence for breaking and entering a dwelling-house?

    1. A. 10 years' imprisonment
    2. B. Life imprisonment
    3. C. 2 years less a day
    4. D. 5 years' imprisonment

  16. 16. PSISB is the branch that regulates guards. Which of these does its annual report list as one of its tools?

    1. A. Setting guards' wages
    2. B. Compliance inspections
    3. C. Hiring guards for clients
    4. D. Running criminal trials

  17. 17. As fire trucks arrive at a hospital, which task fits the syllabus description of a guard's role?

    1. A. Block the main entrance so that no one at all can enter
    2. B. Keep access clear for responders and give them key details
    3. C. Ask firefighters for identification before letting them in
    4. D. Move patients' cars to make parking easier for visitors

  18. 18. APCO 10-codes mean exactly the same thing on every site and radio system in Ontario, so guards never need to check them.

    1. A. True
    2. B. False

  19. 19. At a pharmacy door, a man's dog has no vest. He shows a letter from a member of the College of Registered Psychotherapists confirming he needs it for a disability. What should the guard do?

    1. A. Refuse; only a physician can confirm it
    2. B. Refuse; the dog must also wear a vest
    3. C. Accept it only if the dog is a guide dog
    4. D. Accept it; that professional is on the list

  20. 20. Under O. Reg. 191/11, if admission is charged, the provider must give advance notice of any amount payable for a person's support person.

    1. A. True
    2. B. False

  21. 21. A guard refuses his manager's order to deny entry to customers wearing hijabs, and the manager then cuts his shifts. Which Human Rights Code section protects the guard?

    1. A. Section 13 — announced intention to discriminate
    2. B. Section 8 — no reprisal for refusing to infringe others' rights
    3. C. Section 14 — special programs for disadvantaged groups
    4. D. Section 10 — definitions of terms used in Part I

  22. 22. Your supervisor asks you to fill in patrol times on the log for rounds you did not actually do, so the client's audit looks good. Under the Code of Conduct, you should:

    1. A. refuse, because you must act with honesty and integrity
    2. B. do it, because the supervisor is responsible for the log
    3. C. do it, but add a note saying the supervisor asked
    4. D. fill in only half of the missing rounds

  23. 23. A worker is trapped under a collapsed shelving unit in a warehouse, and the load is too heavy to lift. What does the syllabus say guards must recognize in situations like this?

    1. A. That guards should handle every emergency alone
    2. B. When an emergency is beyond their job and needs more help
    3. C. That calling 911 is a last resort
    4. D. That the client decides whether to call help

  24. 24. Under TPA s.7, what do red markings posted at a property's access points mean?

    1. A. Entry is allowed only for certain activities
    2. B. Entry on the premises is prohibited
    3. C. Hunting is permitted on the premises
    4. D. The property is for sale

  25. 25. The fire alarm sounds at 2 a.m. You find no smoke or fire on the floor shown. A tenant asks you to silence and reset the panel. What should you do?

    1. A. Leave it for the fire department to check and reset
    2. B. Reset it right away so tenants can sleep
    3. C. Pull the panel's power to stop the noise
    4. D. Reset it and tell the fire department not to come

  26. 26. What is the maximum fine for a trespass offence under TPA s.2(1)?

    1. A. $2,000
    2. B. $10,000
    3. C. $25,000
    4. D. $500

  27. 27. Which vehicle patrol disadvantage in the study guide concerns what the guard can see?

    1. A. Blind spots are always covered by cameras
    2. B. Vision may be partly restricted inside the vehicle
    3. C. The guard must watch one area for hours
    4. D. Headlights make intruders easier to spot

  28. 28. After submitting your incident report, you learn from the video that the suspect left through door 3, not door 4 as you wrote. What is the best practice?

    1. A. Secretly edit the original report to fix the door number
    2. B. Ignore it, since the report has already been filed
    3. C. Ask a co-worker to rewrite your report correctly
    4. D. Write a supplementary report with the correction; leave the original

  29. 29. In the six core steps for containing evidence, what does 'ensure continuity' mean?

    1. A. Accounting for the evidence at all times, from collection to court
    2. B. Collecting as much evidence as possible at the scene
    3. C. Keeping the evidence in the guard's locker indefinitely
    4. D. Showing the evidence to each witness for confirmation

  30. 30. The study guide says what an employer should tell guards about hazardous products at a site. What is it?

    1. A. The purchase price of each hazardous product
    2. B. The names of the suppliers' sales staff
    3. C. The procedures to follow in a hazmat emergency
    4. D. The chemical recipe for each product

  31. 31. At a stabbing scene in a parking lot, paramedics have taken the victim. Bystanders start walking through the blood trail to look. What should the guard do until police arrive?

    1. A. Wash away the blood so no one slips
    2. B. Keep people out of the area and protect the scene
    3. C. Collect every item and take it home for safekeeping
    4. D. Leave, since the victim is gone

  32. 32. Before appearing in court, a guard should carefully review all notes and try to recall as many details as possible.

    1. A. True
    2. B. False

  33. 33. A security company sells a retired protection dog to a family. Under O. Reg. 365/07, what must the company tell the new owners?

    1. A. The names of every guard who handled the dog
    2. B. The addresses of all the sites the dog worked at
    3. C. Nothing — the sale ends the company's duties
    4. D. That the dog was used to accompany security guards on duty

  34. 34. According to ontario.ca, which document must you have in its original digital PDF form to apply online for a guard licence?

    1. A. Your most recent income tax return
    2. B. Your signed contract with an employer
    3. C. Your high school diploma or transcript
    4. D. Your criminal record and judicial matters check

  35. 35. The manager of a non-union security company picks two guards he likes to be the worker members of the joint committee. Under OHSA s.9(8), is this correct?

    1. A. Yes — the employer picks all committee members
    2. B. Yes — if the guards agree to serve on it
    3. C. No — the workers must select their own members
    4. D. No — the inspector must pick worker members

  36. 36. Under the PSISA, the Registrar may add new conditions to an existing licence:

    1. A. only at the time the licence comes up for renewal
    2. B. at any time, as the Registrar considers appropriate
    3. C. only with the licensee's written consent
    4. D. only after a court has ordered new conditions

  37. 37. A club doorman refuses entry to a white man because he is with a group of Indigenous friends. Which Human Rights Code rule covers this?

    1. A. No rule, because the man himself is not Indigenous
    2. B. Only the Criminal Code applies to door refusals
    3. C. Only the Trespass to Property Act applies here
    4. D. Discrimination because of association with a protected group

  38. 38. The Divisional Court is a branch of which court, and how many judges usually hear its cases?

    1. A. Superior Court of Justice; three judges
    2. B. Ontario Court of Justice; one judge
    3. C. Supreme Court of Canada; nine judges
    4. D. Court of Appeal; five judges

  39. 39. While patrolling a park-side parking lot, you find a used needle on the ground near a play area. What is the safest approach?

    1. A. Keep people away and follow the site's sharps procedure
    2. B. Pick it up with your fingers and drop it in a garbage can
    3. C. Kick it under a bush so the children cannot see it
    4. D. Leave it there and mention it at the end of the week

  40. 40. A worker is badly hurt at a fenced construction site at night. The ambulance is coming. The main gate is locked. What should the guard arrange?

    1. A. Leave the gate locked to keep the site secure
    2. B. Tell paramedics to climb the fence
    3. C. Unlock the gate and have someone guide the crew in
    4. D. Carry the worker to the street to meet them

  41. 41. A guard leaving at 0700 h tells his relief only 'All quiet' but does not mention that a basement door lock is broken and a contractor still has a master key. What is wrong?

    1. A. The handover should flag open issues like the broken lock and key
    2. B. Nothing — 'all quiet' is a complete and proper handover
    3. C. He should have left a note on his personal phone instead
    4. D. The relief guard should find out on the first round

  42. 42. At a warehouse loading dock, a courier dropping off a parcel asks the guard to use a washroom. Nothing makes it unsafe or impractical. Under OHSA s.29.1, what applies?

    1. A. Couriers are never allowed to use site washrooms
    2. B. The owner must give washroom access on request
    3. C. The courier must first show a security licence
    4. D. Access is allowed only if the courier is a regular

  43. 43. A person hands out flyers inside a mall whose posted rules prohibit soliciting. You tell him to stop, and he refuses and keeps going. What may you do next as the mall's authorized agent?

    1. A. Take all of his flyers and throw them in the garbage
    2. B. Direct him to leave now, and act under the TPA if he refuses
    3. C. Physically carry him out of the mall right away
    4. D. Fine him on the spot for soliciting without a permit

  44. 44. At an outdoor summer concert, a guard is sweating heavily, has a headache and feels weak, but he is alert. What should you do?

    1. A. Move him to a cool place and give him water to sip
    2. B. Tell him to keep working and drink later
    3. C. Give him a coffee to boost his energy
    4. D. Wrap him in a blanket to stop the sweating

  45. 45. A person who misses the one-year deadline can never apply to the Human Rights Tribunal of Ontario.

    1. A. True
    2. B. False

  46. 46. A diagram or photographs attached to an incident report can help show where people, vehicles and evidence were located.

    1. A. True
    2. B. False

  47. 47. Under Criminal Code s.264(2)(d), threatening conduct aimed at a person's pet can be part of criminal harassment.

    1. A. True
    2. B. False

  48. 48. Under the Code of Conduct, a guard who restrains a person must:

    1. A. use at least the same force the person used
    2. B. always apply handcuffs before speaking
    3. C. never touch the person under any circumstances
    4. D. refrain from using unnecessary force

  49. 49. You monitor cameras for three sites from a remote control room and see someone breaking a window at one site. Which surveillance limit from the study guide applies?

    1. A. You must drive to the site and arrest the person yourself
    2. B. Your response may be limited to calling police or site staff
    3. C. You cannot record anything you see on camera
    4. D. You have no duty to act on what you see

  50. 50. You tell a man causing trouble in a mall food court, as the mall's authorized agent, to leave now. He slowly finishes his meal over 20 minutes, arguing, then leaves. Has he committed an offence under TPA s.2(1)(b)?

    1. A. No — he left eventually without any force
    2. B. No — eating is a permitted activity in the food court
    3. C. Only if he comes back to the mall tomorrow
    4. D. Yes — he did not leave immediately when directed

Answer key

  1. 1. C — The study guide says guards control traffic on private property to ensure traffic safety and to help vehicles move. Checking licences or issuing tickets is not part of this role.
  2. 2. D — The syllabus says guards must maintain professional composure under high stress and covers managing stress when isolated or fatigued, along with health factors like rest, nutrition and fitness.
  3. 3. B — The syllabus suggests a quiz on the relevant sections of the PSISA and the Code of Conduct as the evaluation for Section 1.
  4. 4. B — The syllabus says guards observe the physical environment for changes and suspicious behaviour, typically through in-person or remote surveillance. It is not limited to vehicles, police or night shifts.
  5. 5. A — TPA s.3(1)(b) prohibits entry without any notice on premises enclosed in a manner that indicates the occupier's intention to keep persons off. A locked fence around a construction site shows that intention.
  6. 6. B — Criminal Code s.25(1)(c) protects everyone required or authorized by law to act in aid of a peace officer, if they act on reasonable grounds and use only as much force as is necessary. The PSISA licence gives no police powers.
  7. 7. A — The study guide (s.3) notes that most guard tasks involve observing, deterring, recording and reporting, and that guards can supplement police by providing information. Calling police and recording details avoids the risks of physical intervention.
  8. 8. D — The syllabus (s.3) stresses recognizing typical conditions, detecting anomalies and prioritizing actions. A change from your baseline, such as a propped fire door, could mean an intrusion or a safety hazard, so check it safely, secure it and document it in your notebook.
  9. 9. A — The syllabus says guards must identify the appropriate method of communication to report an issue. A possible medical emergency needs an immediate call for help; the written report comes afterward.
  10. 10. D — The test delivery provider states that no aids are permitted and all needed materials are supplied. Tests are 60 multiple-choice questions based on the basic training topics.
  11. 11. C — The study guide (s.3) lists the disadvantages of foot patrol: restricted mobility and coverage, time needed to patrol, weather limits, difficulty carrying equipment, communication problems without a radio, and difficult supervision. Foot patrol is highly visible and uses all the senses.
  12. 12. A — Bomb threat guidance says to write down everything about the call immediately using the checklist: exact words, voice, background noise, time and caller ID, then notify authorities per the plan.
  13. 13. D — O. Reg. 191/11 s.80.46(2) sets principles: services must respect dignity and independence, be integrated with services to others unless an alternative is necessary, give equal opportunity, and communicate in a way that takes the disability into account.
  14. 14. D — In the study guide's APCO list, 10-25 means 'Report to ________'. The study guide tells guards to check the communication protocols their employer uses, since codes can vary by site.
  15. 15. B — Criminal Code s.348(1)(d) makes break and enter in relation to a dwelling-house an indictable offence punishable by imprisonment for life. For places other than dwellings, the maximum on indictment is 10 years (s.348(1)(e)).
  16. 16. B — The PSISB annual report lists its oversight tools: training and testing, licensing, a formal public complaints process, compliance inspections, and enforcement of the PSISA. It does not set wages, supply guards or run trials.
  17. 17. B — The Training Syllabus (s.6) lists how to control access for emergency services and provide necessary details among the emergency response skills. The study guide (s.6) adds that guards may provide direction to emergency personnel when they arrive.
  18. 18. B — False. The study guide (s.9) tells guards to check with their employers about communication protocols and the use of two-way radios. The 10-code list in the guide's appendix is a reference; sites may use their own codes or plain language.
  19. 19. D — Section 80.45(4) says an animal is a service animal if it is readily identified, such as by a vest, or the person gives documentation from a listed regulated health professional. The list includes registered psychotherapists. Either way is enough.
  20. 20. A — True. O. Reg. 191/11 s.80.47(6) requires a provider that charges for admission to give notice in advance about the amount, if any, payable in respect of a support person. If the provider itself requires the support person, the fee must be waived (s.80.47(7)).
  21. 21. B — Human Rights Code s.8 gives every person the right to refuse to infringe another person's rights under the Act without reprisal or threat of reprisal.
  22. 22. A — O. Reg. 363/07 s.2(1)(a) requires every individual licensee, while working, to act with honesty and integrity. Recording patrols that did not happen is a false record; a supervisor's instruction does not excuse it, and s.2(2)(b) also forbids aiding another licensee in a breach.
  23. 23. B — The syllabus says guards must recognize when an emergency is beyond the scope of their job and requires additional assistance, and understand who to contact in specific emergencies.
  24. 24. B — TPA s.7(1) says red markings made and posted according to s.7(3)-(4) are sufficient notice that entry on the premises is prohibited. Yellow markings mean entry is prohibited except for certain activities (s.7(2)).
  25. 25. A — An alarm is treated as real until the fire department has checked it. Resetting or silencing the system early can hide a real fire and leave it unable to warn people. Follow site procedure and let the responders decide.
  26. 26. B — TPA s.2(1), as amended in 2016, makes a person guilty of a trespass offence liable on conviction to a fine of not more than $10,000. Courts may also order damages under s.12.
  27. 27. B — The study guide lists partly restricted vision inside a vehicle as a vehicle patrol disadvantage. Watching one area for hours is a fixed-surveillance disadvantage.
  28. 28. D — Reports may be used in audits or court (syllabus s.4), so they must be accurate and not tampered with. Corrections are added openly in a follow-up or supplementary report according to employer policy.
  29. 29. A — The study guide lists collect, secure, preserve, identify, ensure continuity and log. Continuity means an unbroken, documented chain of custody so the court can trust the item is what it claims to be.
  30. 30. C — The study guide says guards should be trained to understand workplace hazards and the controls that protect them, such as policies or PPE, and should be informed by their employer of the procedures to follow in an emergency involving hazardous materials.
  31. 31. B — The study guide says guards should be capable of securing and protecting a crime scene until the appropriate personnel arrive. Keeping people out prevents contamination; cleaning or removing items destroys evidence.
  32. 32. A — True. The study guide (s.4) advises that before appearing in court, the guard should carefully review all notes and try to remember as many details about the situation as possible, since notes are only a memory aid on the stand.
  33. 33. D — O. Reg. 365/07 s.8 requires a licensee who gives away or sells a dog used to accompany guards for protection to advise the new owner that the dog was used in that role. Licensed businesses must also have written policies on the dogs' care, including retirement (s.6).
  34. 34. D — Ontario.ca says online applications can only be submitted by people who receive and submit an original, unaltered digital PDF of their Criminal Record and Judicial Matters Check. Other applicants apply by mail.
  35. 35. C — OHSA s.9(8) says members who represent workers are selected by the workers they represent or, if there is a union, by the union. The employer selects only the management members under s.9(9).
  36. 36. B — PSISA s.14(2) lets the Registrar issue or renew a licence subject to conditions and, at any time, attach additional conditions to an existing licence. The licensee must receive written notice and may request a hearing (s.16(1)(b)).
  37. 37. D — Human Rights Code s.12 says a right under Part I is infringed where discrimination is because of relationship, association or dealings with persons identified by a prohibited ground.
  38. 38. A — Courts of Justice Act s.18(1) continues the Divisional Court as a branch of the Superior Court of Justice. Section 21(1) says its cases are heard by three judges sitting together, with some exceptions for one judge.
  39. 39. A — Used needles can transmit blood-borne infections, so they must never be handled with bare hands. Keeping people away and following the employer's sharps procedure, with puncture-resistant containers and protective equipment, fits the guide's duty to prevent accidents by reporting hazards (s.3).
  40. 40. C — The syllabus says guards control access for emergency services and give them the details they need. Open the gate ahead of time and have someone meet the crew and lead them to the casualty. Do not move a badly injured person to save time.
  41. 41. A — The syllabus lists shift handover procedures, including how to update the next person on shift, as a basic element of security. Open issues such as a broken lock and a key signed out must be passed on.
  42. 42. B — OHSA s.29.1(1) requires the owner of a workplace to provide access to a washroom, on request, to a worker who is there to deliver or collect items. Exceptions in s.29.1(2) apply when access would not be reasonable or practical for health, safety or other listed reasons, or the washroom is in a dwelling.
  43. 43. B — Under TPA s.4(2), a notice prohibiting a particular activity (soliciting) prohibits that activity. The authorized person may direct him to leave; if he does not leave immediately, it is an offence under s.2(1)(b), and s.9 allows arrest on reasonable and probable grounds.
  44. 44. A — Heavy sweating, headache and weakness in an alert person suggest heat exhaustion. Move him to a cool, shaded place, loosen clothing and have him sip water. If he gets worse or becomes confused, call 911 because it may be heat stroke.
  45. 45. B — Human Rights Code s.34(2) allows an application after the one-year limit if the Tribunal is satisfied the delay was incurred in good faith and no substantial prejudice will result to anyone affected.
  46. 46. A — True. The study guide (s.4) says reports should answer "where", including where each person was and where evidence was found. Sketches or photographs, taken under site policy, can make these locations clearer to readers.
  47. 47. A — Section 264(2)(d) lists engaging in threatening conduct directed at the other person or at anyone or any animal known to them. Threats against a person's pet can therefore be part of criminal harassment.
  48. 48. D — O. Reg. 363/07 s.2(1)(f) requires licensees to refrain from exercising unnecessary force. Criminal Code s.26 also makes anyone authorized to use force criminally responsible for any excess, so force must be only what the situation requires.
  49. 49. B — The study guide (s.3) notes that with surveillance, response may be restricted to calling police or internal personnel, especially when the guard is monitoring from a different location. Calling promptly and recording details of what you saw is the right action.
  50. 50. D — TPA s.2(1)(b) makes it an offence to not leave the premises immediately after being directed to by the occupier or an authorized person. Lingering for 20 minutes is not leaving immediately.

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